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09/19/2010 02:12 AM

The Difference Between BP I & BP II(page 5)

hedap
 
Posts: 2012
Senior Member

Well usually if anti-d's didn't work on you and a mood stabilizer did, you passed one criteria for bp2. I don't know all the criteria, but I suppose it's possible to have hypomania and still be able to sleep. Let's see if anyone else has experienced that before. hp
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09/19/2010 12:56 PM
dizzyb
dizzyb  
Posts: 4328
VIP Member

Hello Geiri. We haven't met so welcome to the group.

Ok all, let's clear this up. You do not have to meet all of the criteria listed to be experiencing hypomania. In fact, many of us experience it in totally different ways. In order to have a diagnosis of BP II there has to have been some form of hypomania, otherwise as pdoc would not diagnose BP. Some experience many symptoms when hypomanic, others only one or two. Geiri, anxiety can be a symptom of hypomania, as can irritation, anger and many other such emotions. The thing is that as part of BP they will be more intense, frequent or irrational, unjustified.

There could be certain traits that have been ascribed to your OCD or ADD that were part of a hypomanic episode. If you are so unsure, you really need to ask your pdoc what his criteria was in diagnosing you.

BP II is characterised by more lows and less highs, so it makes sense that you have depression. You do have a swing, could be as simple as from depressed to anxious.

Anti-depressants without a mood stabilser will generally not work. They can make you hymomanic in various forms, or make depression worse. This is why so many people say they didn't work for them.

Heather, I'm not sure that the fact that the anti-dep didn't work but the mood-stabilser did is actually a criterion.

When researching we often learn so much that we "become" the condition. Step back and take count of YOURSELF, not all the criteria you've read or heard. Look for what YOU relate to, even if it's just one thing. Like anxiety. Or irrational money spending, this is one that many don't see as a symptom, just some "retail therapy" Wink

Above all, NO ONE is qualified to make a diagnosis except a pdoc. If you've been diagnosed, then it's for a reason. If you query the decision, definitely set your mind at ease by talking to them.

For the rest of the time, we're here Tongue

Big hugs, Bridget Smile

now this mouse could be hypo Laughing

Post edited by: dizzyb, at: 09/19/2010 12:58 PM


07/11/2011 02:45 AM
barelymanic
barelymanic  
Posts: 3253
VIP Member

I think there is a typo in that link, it says that there are no mixed episodes in bipolar II then later it says mixed episodes are extremely common in Bipolar II.

07/11/2011 03:02 AM
barelymanic
barelymanic  
Posts: 3253
VIP Member

Well, I really love that cartoon, it just cracked me up. If you watch the television commercials they will tell you that abilify can be added if your anti depressant isn't working very well. I am not sure why your doc would tell you it takes care of the highs, never heard abilify do that unless it is a side effect for some.

08/05/2011 10:35 PM
danzig621
danzig621  
Posts: 174
Member

thank you all for your questions and experiences shared. it was very helpful to me. i feel like such a dope that working in the mental health/dd field i never knew that their was bipolar i and ii. i told my doc years ago that "it's like i am bipolar except i never have "ups", just downs". why i wasn't diagnosed years ago was partially my own ignorance. duh.

08/06/2011 11:26 AM
stormshadow
Posts: 35
New Member

stupid question? What is a pdoc?

08/06/2011 11:35 AM
rigje
rigje  
Posts: 206
Member
I'm an Advocate

a pdoc is short for psychiatrist- and its a good question - there are a lot of shortcuts in postings

Welcome stormshadow


08/25/2011 08:02 PM
whatthefisup
whatthefisup  
Posts: 440
Member

I wanted to chime in and repeat something I read in the BP only group. Apparently there are rumors that in the DSM V psychosis will be an allowable symptom for both BP1 and BP2. So, the only significant difference between the two will be mania vs hypomania.

This actually makes a lot of sense to me. The only reason I was diagnoses with BP1 is because of psychotic delusions. However I really dont think my "manias" were that bad. And I was only delusional when I was depressed... Any way, until my diagnosis is changed I guess I remain BP1 but, I know it would only be classified at moderate.


08/26/2011 04:38 AM
platelet60
platelet60  
Posts: 282
Member

Whatthefisup, I can relate. The official diagnosis on my paperwork that was filled out at the hospital in 2008 is bipolar I with psychotic features. But I have never had a full blown manic episode as they're commonly thought of, I think. I have mostly downs, with some hypomania which some how shades into psychosis. It's like a "quiet" psychosis, I don't know if that matters or qualifies it. I'm not in a hurry to change the diagnosis for some reason.

08/26/2011 05:44 AM
barelymanic
barelymanic  
Posts: 3253
VIP Member

I think a lot of docs classify you as bipolar I if you have any psychosis whatsoever. There was a point when my NP said I wasn't making any sense to her, i wasn't aware of it.

I am often not aware of mood changes, etc. I am working on it. My social worker is helping me by creating a list for me of oh shoot i don't know how to put it. I guess symptoms/signs of bipolar such as not eating and needing less sleep, etc.

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